First Touching

[yankeesfan]

(Does this mean we give ball to K, after penalty enforcement, for R's holding foul, from previous spot if yardage enough for 1st down. Or, after R holding enforced from previous spot does K get a 1st down, due to R touching it beyond the neutral zone...??).

it would have to be that if the yardage is enough it would be a first down.

[Cliffdweller]

I guarantee you, the crew I am on would have told K in order to keep the ball they would have to decline the foul by R and we would have gave them the ball where they recovered the ball. Seems logical to me since the kick ended with R's recovery.

[Welpe]

Originally Posted by Cliffdweller

I guarantee you, the crew I am on would have told K in order to keep the ball they would have to decline the foul by R and we would have gave them the ball where they recovered the ball. Seems logical to me since the kick ended with R's recovery.

For which scenario? In the case book play you would be wrong because if K declines the penalty for R's foul, first touching applies and R would be awarded the ball at the spot of first touching.

[Cliffdweller]

Originally Posted by Welpe

For which scenario? In the case book play you would be wrong because if K declines the penalty for R's foul, first touching applies and R would be awarded the ball at the spot of first touching.

Exactly what I was saying, we would have enforced it wrong. Taking yardage away from K just doesn't seem right....

[Welpe]

Ah I follow you now. I don't disagree but just keep in mind that they screwed up too. If they hadn't committed first touching they could've kept the yardage.