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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Sun Feb 15, 2015, 09:16pm
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From what I read, no violation in either play above.
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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Sun Feb 15, 2015, 09:45pm
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No such thing as an "illegal throw-in," but was it a throw-in violation?

See 7-6-2. Did the thrower release the ball on a pass directly into the court? HTBT, judgment call. If he fumbled, it's not a pass. Legal. If it was a pass and he somehow caught it, then it didn't touch another player on the court before going out of bounds untouched, and it is therefore a violation.
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  #3 (permalink)  
Old Sun Feb 15, 2015, 10:12pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by crosscountry55 View Post
No such thing as an "illegal throw-in," but was it a throw-in violation?

See 7-6-2. Did the thrower release the ball on a pass directly into the court? HTBT, judgment call. If he fumbled, it's not a pass. Legal. If it was a pass and he somehow caught it, then it didn't touch another player on the court before going out of bounds untouched, and it is therefore a violation.

If he caught it himself it's not a pass.
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  #4 (permalink)  
Old Sun Feb 15, 2015, 10:42pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
If he caught it himself it's not a pass.
This is true. 4-31.

However, suppose we have a throw-in in which A1 is by himself and just dumps the ball inbounds, and then he himself goes inbounds and is the first to touch the ball. He wasn't passing because he wasn't throwing, batting or rolling the ball to another player, yet we still consider it a violation if he's the first to touch the ball.

So how is it any different if the thrower starts to throw, bat or roll the ball directly into the court, releases it, and is then somehow able to retrieve it before he himself goes inbounds? Where in the rules does it say that the thrower physically going inbounds becomes the difference between violating and not?
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  #5 (permalink)  
Old Sun Feb 15, 2015, 11:59pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by crosscountry55 View Post
Where in the rules does it say that the thrower physically going inbounds becomes the difference between violating and not?
9-2-6 The thrown ball shall not touch the thrower in the court before it touches or is touched
by another player
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  #6 (permalink)  
Old Mon Feb 16, 2015, 07:34am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
9-2-6 The thrown ball shall not touch the thrower in the court before it touches or is touched
by another player
Nice response. I'm convinced.

So I think we're now all in agreement that what the OP described was NOT a violation (Incorrect call; failure to properly apply a rule).
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