Would you call a foul if it will give disadvantage to the team fouled?

[KCRC]

Originally Posted by Camron Rust

In general, that is correct. Intentiona/Flagrant, yes. Types of fouls declared as automatic aside, a passer that gets hit after the release that goes to a wide open layup will not get a foul call.

It is all about the intent and purpose along with the definition of a foul:



What normal defensive or offensive movement is prevented by such a foul if his/her teammate is just about to shoot an undefended layup?

I've even no called it when the passer threw the ball ahead to the teams undefended sharpshooter on the wing. The coach (right by me) started to say something about it and I replied to him that his sharpshooter was catching the ball, he looked and saw it, shut up...then swish for 3. Right call, every day.

Camron, this is a good summary of what I believe is the majority opinion on this board (and the larger officiating community) interpreting advantage/disadvantage. At the risk of being in the super-minority, I respectfully disagree. I am more for the a "foul is a foul" school of thought. I don't like the technique of waiting to see if the shot goes in to determine if there is a foul. This play falls in a similar vain. I interpret "normal offensive and defensive movements" to mean normal physical movements (e.g. movement, keeping balance, etc.), not the result of what a particular player is able to play through.

I find it contradictory that the NHFS and NCAA have repeatedly over the last several years issued POE and other directives, including the recently issued "automatic" fouls on ball handlers, to curb rough play, while at the same time officials go out of their way to come up with reasons to classify significant contact as legal.

Again, I understand my opinion is in the minority.