Why is a foul worth 3 points...

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by bellnier

I guess I just don't get it. And, BTW, I have no agenda. Just confused. In both scenarios the player made his attempt BEFORE the foul. The subsequent foul did NOT interfere in the attempts in any way. Seems illogical then to have different awards for a foul that did not change the attempt. PS, instead of lecturing me about my obvious misunderstanding of an airborne player, it might have been nicer to just explain it to me.

So, to your way of thinking, if the basket is made, should the shooter still be given 2 shots rather than 1?

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by MD Longhorn

So, to your way of thinking, if the basket is made, should the shooter still be given 2 shots rather than 1?

That's where I was headed next. All airborne shooters, no matter where on the court, or the result of the shot, should then be given the same amount of free throws.

[SNIPERBBB]

Originally Posted by MD Longhorn

So, to your way of thinking, if the basket is made, should the shooter still be given 2 shots rather than 1?

If we want to add another layer of fun to this...if after the ball leaves the shooter's hand a subsequent foul would be considered a non shooting foul and we are into no shots/one and one or two shot territory.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by SNIPERBBB

If we want to add another layer of fun to this...if after the ball leaves the shooter's hand a subsequent foul would be considered a non shooting foul and we are into no shots/one and one or two shot territory.

Thats what it would be if no other rules changes were made -- that was my point in post #11.