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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Tue Dec 11, 2012, 12:26am
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When the second violator is the shooter, you do penalized both and go to the AP. How could a guy stepping in from the block cause the shooter to violate?
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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Tue Dec 11, 2012, 12:38am
C'mon man!!
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
When the second violator is the shooter, you do penalized both and go to the AP. How could a guy stepping in from the block cause the shooter to violate?
My thoughts exactly. What would be an example of disconcertion that would cause the FT shooter violate. I couldn't think of any thing. It is pretty much always just going to be a violation on the shooter with out any disconcertion and penalized accordingly.

I thought his argument was pretty weak.
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  #3 (permalink)  
Old Tue Dec 11, 2012, 12:40am
APG APG is offline
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If B1 entered in right as A1 was shooting the free throw, and A1 stopped his motion due to this, I could see a case for call disconcertion.
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  #4 (permalink)  
Old Tue Dec 11, 2012, 12:50am
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Originally Posted by APG View Post
If B1 entered in right as A1 was shooting the free throw, and A1 stopped his motion due to this, I could see a case for call disconcertion.
You mean stopped his motion resulting in an air ball?
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  #5 (permalink)  
Old Tue Dec 11, 2012, 01:00am
APG APG is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
You mean stopped his motion resulting in an air ball?
Stopped his motion...then reshoots and shoots an airball.
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  #6 (permalink)  
Old Tue Dec 11, 2012, 12:39am
C'mon man!!
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
When the second violator is the shooter, you do penalized both and go to the AP. How could a guy stepping in from the block cause the shooter to violate?
Can anyone pose a scenario where Violation on B followed by Violation by A at the line that you wouldn't rule a double violation and go to AP arrow?
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