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Old Sun Dec 09, 2012, 09:48am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by SAK View Post
During a throw-in, B1 has violated if thrower A1 passes the ball into the court and it is first touched by B1 who has one foot on a boundary line.
Maybe the test is trying to confuse old timers. This used to be a throwin violation on A1.

That's my observation on the possible rationale behind this test question.

For those who would like a shorter, Twitter (less than 140 characters) version of the answer: True.
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Last edited by BillyMac; Sun Dec 09, 2012 at 10:03am.
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