Celtics play

[JRutledge]

Originally Posted by truerookie

Yes, travel did not occur until after the hit on the arm. I tend to believe that if you did/do not call the travel why negate the foul called. Thus, count the basket.

I was not saying negate the foul, just asking if we should count the basket or not on this kind of play if the foul takes place? Then after the foul technically travels, do we count the basket? Or do we give 2 shots instead if the ball goes in anyway?

But it appears you got the gist of what I was saying.

Peace