Celtics play

[Adam]

APG, can you get the block charge from today's game at 6:58 in the 2nd?

[Mark Padgett]

Then please see if you can get Labron's drive to the basket with 5:18 left in the 3rd. It looked to me like he traveled (even under NBE rules) twice, once at the beginning of the drive and then again after he gathered the ball. The Celtics were complaining, too. Thanks.

[APG]

[JugglingReferee]

Eeek.

I've got a PC and two travels, even by NBE standards.

[ref3808]

I see a PC and an easy travel call that my rec league middle school "officials" would spot 99% of the time.

There were some other questionable calls as well, I think in the 4th quarter Pierce took a what should have been a charge from Lebron that went as a no call. I can't recall the others.

[JeroenB]

That travel is just horrible, even by NBA standards...

[Scrapper1]

PC, but I'm not 100% sure on the travel at the end of Lebron's drive. Remember that the NBA changed their traveling rule to allow 2 steps after establishing a pivot foot. That means (I think) that you can establish a pivot foot, step with the other foot (thus lifting the pivot) and then step again (placing the pivot back on the floor) and this is legal.

And I think that's what Lebron did at the end of that drive. It's hard to see exactly when he gathers the ball, but I think he only steps twice after gathering.

[tref]

Originally Posted by ref3808

I see a PC and an easy travel call that my rec league middle school "officials" would spot 99% of the time.

Lets complete that thought...
Wreck league middle school officials also spot travels that didnt occur.

That being said, looks like a tough ICC on the first play. How many times do we see defenders taking block/charge plays in the b/c??

And I dont see a travel off the pass, but after the gather he does take 3.



The day ANY of us has a perfect game we should retire. Leave on a "high note" like George Costanza.

[JugglingReferee]

Originally Posted by Scrapper1

PC, but I'm not 100% sure on the travel at the end of Lebron's drive. Remember that the NBA changed their traveling rule to allow 2 steps after establishing a pivot foot. That means (I think) that you can establish a pivot foot, step with the other foot (thus lifting the pivot) and then step again (placing the pivot back on the floor) and this is legal.

And I think that's what Lebron did at the end of that drive. It's hard to see exactly when he gathers the ball, but I think he only steps twice after gathering.

Since the right foot was last to touch, and therefore would be the step to possibly rule as a travel, the question becomes is the left on the ground when he gathered the ball.

I think it is. In fact, I think he has two hands on the ball when the left is still touching the floor.

[JugglingReferee]

The only was that there is no travel at the beginning of LeBron's possession, is if the NBE dribble step allotment is identical to the shot allotment.

[JRutledge]

Wasn't he fouled? If he is fouled before he travels and it looks like that based on that would be the only contact that would negate any travel. They did not show the angle from the official's point of view so I am wondering how much of a foul it was, but it appears a foul was called in real time on the right arm while LeBron is in the act of shooting. It may have actually been a travel first, but it appears the call was about a foul as a result. What would have been a better question is should the basket could on a foul where the player "travels" after being fouled?

Peace

[truerookie]

Originally Posted by JRutledge

Wasn't he fouled? If he is fouled before he travels and it looks like that based on that would be the only contact that would negate any travel. They did not show the angle from the official's point of view so I am wondering how much of a foul it was, but it appears a foul was called in real time on the right arm while LeBron is in the act of shooting. It may have actually been a travel first, but it appears the call was about a foul as a result. What would have been a better question is should the basket could on a foul where the player "travels" after being fouled?

Peace

Yes, travel did not occur until after the hit on the arm. I tend to believe that if you did/do not call the travel why negate the foul called. Thus, count the basket.

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by truerookie

Yes, travel did not occur until after the hit on the arm. I tend to believe that if you did/do not call the travel why negate the foul called. Thus, count the basket.

If a player in the act of shooting gets fouled and then travels before releasing the shot then you should wipe the basket and award 2 free-throws.

[letemplay]

I'll agree with most on the travel, but disagree with most on the PC.

[truerookie]

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef

If a player in the act of shooting gets fouled and then travels before releasing the shot then you should wipe the basket and award 2 free-throws.

BNR,

I understand that. I knew you would come along to make sure I knew it..