Celtics play

[JeroenB]

That travel is just horrible, even by NBA standards...

[Scrapper1]

PC, but I'm not 100% sure on the travel at the end of Lebron's drive. Remember that the NBA changed their traveling rule to allow 2 steps after establishing a pivot foot. That means (I think) that you can establish a pivot foot, step with the other foot (thus lifting the pivot) and then step again (placing the pivot back on the floor) and this is legal.

And I think that's what Lebron did at the end of that drive. It's hard to see exactly when he gathers the ball, but I think he only steps twice after gathering.

[JugglingReferee]

Originally Posted by Scrapper1

PC, but I'm not 100% sure on the travel at the end of Lebron's drive. Remember that the NBA changed their traveling rule to allow 2 steps after establishing a pivot foot. That means (I think) that you can establish a pivot foot, step with the other foot (thus lifting the pivot) and then step again (placing the pivot back on the floor) and this is legal.

And I think that's what Lebron did at the end of that drive. It's hard to see exactly when he gathers the ball, but I think he only steps twice after gathering.

Since the right foot was last to touch, and therefore would be the step to possibly rule as a travel, the question becomes is the left on the ground when he gathered the ball.

I think it is. In fact, I think he has two hands on the ball when the left is still touching the floor.

[JugglingReferee]

The only was that there is no travel at the beginning of LeBron's possession, is if the NBE dribble step allotment is identical to the shot allotment.

[JRutledge]

Wasn't he fouled? If he is fouled before he travels and it looks like that based on that would be the only contact that would negate any travel. They did not show the angle from the official's point of view so I am wondering how much of a foul it was, but it appears a foul was called in real time on the right arm while LeBron is in the act of shooting. It may have actually been a travel first, but it appears the call was about a foul as a result. What would have been a better question is should the basket could on a foul where the player "travels" after being fouled?

Peace

[truerookie]

Originally Posted by JRutledge

Wasn't he fouled? If he is fouled before he travels and it looks like that based on that would be the only contact that would negate any travel. They did not show the angle from the official's point of view so I am wondering how much of a foul it was, but it appears a foul was called in real time on the right arm while LeBron is in the act of shooting. It may have actually been a travel first, but it appears the call was about a foul as a result. What would have been a better question is should the basket could on a foul where the player "travels" after being fouled?

Peace

Yes, travel did not occur until after the hit on the arm. I tend to believe that if you did/do not call the travel why negate the foul called. Thus, count the basket.

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by truerookie

Yes, travel did not occur until after the hit on the arm. I tend to believe that if you did/do not call the travel why negate the foul called. Thus, count the basket.

If a player in the act of shooting gets fouled and then travels before releasing the shot then you should wipe the basket and award 2 free-throws.

[JRutledge]

Originally Posted by truerookie

Yes, travel did not occur until after the hit on the arm. I tend to believe that if you did/do not call the travel why negate the foul called. Thus, count the basket.

I was not saying negate the foul, just asking if we should count the basket or not on this kind of play if the foul takes place? Then after the foul technically travels, do we count the basket? Or do we give 2 shots instead if the ball goes in anyway?

But it appears you got the gist of what I was saying.

Peace

[Adam]

Originally Posted by JRutledge

Wasn't he fouled? If he is fouled before he travels and it looks like that based on that would be the only contact that would negate any travel. They did not show the angle from the official's point of view so I am wondering how much of a foul it was, but it appears a foul was called in real time on the right arm while LeBron is in the act of shooting. It may have actually been a travel first, but it appears the call was about a foul as a result. What would have been a better question is should the basket could on a foul where the player "travels" after being fouled?

Peace

Haven't we discussed this extensively; with the conclusion being that you wave off the score and award two shots?

The ball does not become dead on the foul if it's by the defense and the shooting motion has begun. It does, however, become dead when the offense commits a violation. Thus no basket, but two shots.

[JRutledge]

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

Haven't we discussed this extensively; with the conclusion being that you wave off the score and award two shots?

The ball does not become dead on the foul if it's by the defense and the shooting motion has begun. It does, however, become dead when the offense commits a violation. Thus no basket, but two shots.

Not sure I remember or were directly involved in those discussions here, but there are discussions I have had about this issue previously. But in this discussion people seem to be intent on that there was a travel and did not seem to focus on the foul that might have affected any travel being called. That is the only reason I pointed that out.

Peace