legal play?

[billyu2]

Originally Posted by BillyMac

Too simple. Let's twist this around: A1 has used his dribble. B1 reaches out to make a steal, and simply touches the ball, without A1 losing possession. A1 begins a new dribble. Legal play?

Bonus question: A1 has used his dribble. A2 running near A1, reaches out, and simply touches the ball, without A1 losing possession. A1 begins a new dribble. Legal play?

Well, the next situation I had is somewhat similar to yours BillyMac. A1 is dribbling toward the baseline. As she turns the corner toward the basket she palms the ball, turns the hand over and continues to dribble. My partner the L calls the violation. After the game he has doubt about the call because he said the ball touched an opponent while A1 was in the process of carrying the ball. We looked it up to be sure and of course 4-15-4 says ..."and causes the dribbler to lose control." So in this play and yours BillyMac the violation is the correct call. But this caused me to think about my previous question in that A1's act of bouncing the ball off an opponent really didn't cause A1 to lose control of the ball. However, as BNR said, we've always interpreted that act to be a pass that was touched or touched by another player making it legal to begin another dribble.