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Old Thu Jan 26, 2012, 06:04pm
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Originally Posted by twocentsworth View Post
If i was on the floor and this scenario happened....and my partner granted the TO early...I would have simply corrected the situation by cancelling the timeout, scoring the made FT, and proceeding with the 2nd FT.

It only makes sense to correct the error that was caused by the officials in an equitable manner that is fair to both teams. Bring both coaches together, explain the problem, and tell them how you're going to resolve it using common sense....
Yeah that's a nice, logical way to handle it...but it's not what the rules say. Once the TO has been granted - even erroneously - we go with the time-out.
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Old Thu Jan 26, 2012, 06:37pm
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Originally Posted by rockyroad View Post
Yeah that's a nice, logical way to handle it...but it's not what the rules say. Once the TO has been granted - even erroneously - we go with the time-out.
Only if the coach/team was actually requesting a time-out at that moment.
See the case play posted above.
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Old Fri Jan 27, 2012, 12:57am
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Originally Posted by Nevadaref View Post
Only if the coach/team was actually requesting a time-out at that moment.
See the case play posted above.
Which he was in the OP...no need to see case play posted above.
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Old Fri Jan 27, 2012, 03:20pm
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Originally Posted by rockyroad View Post
Which he was in the OP...no need to see case play posted above.
I'm confused, I thought the coach was talking to his players? If so, it seems like it's an easy inadvertant whistle call, the first FT counts, and we move on to the second FT, as per the case play, part (b).

I agree the coach could've worded his intentions differently, but I don't understand why some are saying the TO should still be charged. Just because the word was uttered, doesn't mean the request was being made to the official at that time. Granted, it gave the official the opportunity to make the mistake, but it still wasn't an actual request.
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