intentional foul

[Scrapper1]

Originally Posted by tref

So A1 can bump B1 but B1 cant shove A1 back? I'm going double here, as the bump caused the shoved.
Had B1 retaliated by punching A1 wouldnt we run them both?

The poor kid stumbles and bumps into an opponent. We didn't see the play, but that hardly sounds like inciting B1 to retaliate. Sounds like the kid was clumsy, and fell into a girl who over-reacted.

(Jokes about over-reacting girls intentionally omitted!)

[tref]

Originally Posted by Scrapper1

The poor kid stumbles and bumps into an opponent. We didn't see the play, but that hardly sounds like inciting B1 to retaliate. Sounds like the kid was clumsy, and fell into a girl who over-reacted.

(Jokes about over-reacting girls intentionally omitted!)

Hmmmmm never saw the stumbles part in the OP, the way it was written I was led to believe the bump was intentional. But like most cases probably HTBT.

[Adam]

Originally Posted by tref

Hmmmmm never saw the stumbles part in the OP, the way it was written I was led to believe the bump was intentional. But like most cases probably HTBT.

It's there. Bump doesn't signify intent to me, not like "push" would.