Made a layup at wrong basket

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by Scrapper1

For the newer officials, the reason it's not a try is that a try is defined as an attempt to throw the ball into a team's own goal. So throwing the ball into the opponent's goal still counts as two points (since a live ball passed through the basket), but is not a try.

So if a common foul occurs during the throw (at the opponent's goal), continuous motion does not apply and no free throws are awarded.

More than that, not only does the pre-release movement not get to finish, but the post-release ball in flight becomes immediately dead at the time of the foul.

[Scrapper1]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

More than that, not only does the pre-release movement not get to finish, but the post-release ball in flight becomes immediately dead at the time of the foul.

Crap. I knew I forgot something. Good catch, Nevada.

[bainsey]

I've seen this happen twice in games I've worked. (One opposing coach accepted the points; the other declined.) Both times, the kids were too embarrassed to even consider running the line.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by bainsey

(One opposing coach accepted the points; the other declined.)

What?

[tref]

Originally Posted by bainsey

I've seen this happen twice in games I've worked. (One opposing coach accepted the points; the other declined.) Both times, the kids were too embarrassed to even consider running the line.

Can they do that, by rule?

[APG]

Originally Posted by bainsey

I've seen this happen twice in games I've worked. (One opposing coach accepted the points; the other declined.) Both times, the kids were too embarrassed to even consider running the line.

Since when do we allow coaches to decline points?

[JugglingReferee]

Originally Posted by AllPurposeGamer

Since when do we allow coaches to decline points?

He is a former football coach.

[larandtra]

OK, I have a question about this. If Team A scores on team Bs basket after a throw in, why would team A get the ball again? If Team a scores on Team As basket there is a change of possession. On any made basket, must there not be a change of possession unless superceded by a technical foul? From my perspective, Why should team A get the benefit ofball possession when they just had possession and there was a made basket? I understand the whole "not penalizing team A, but, they also should not get the benefit of an additional possession. Just trying to get clarification on this.

[APG]

NFHS

Rule 7, Section 5

ART. 7 . . . A throw-in anywhere along the end line after a goal or an awarded goal for basket interference or goaltending by a defensive player, as in 9-12 Penalty 1, the team not credited with the score shall make a throw-in from the end of the court where the goal was made and from any point outside the end line

If Team A puts the ball in Team B's basket, Team B is credited the points and since Team A wasn't credited with a score, they are awarded a throw-in. And really, Team B isn't going to feel cheated out of a possession since they got two points from the other team.

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by larandtra

OK, I have a question about this. If Team A scores on team Bs basket after a throw in, why would team A get the ball again? If Team a scores on Team As basket there is a change of possession. On any made basket, must there not be a change of possession unless superceded by a technical foul? From my perspective, Why should team A get the benefit ofball possession when they just had possession and there was a made basket? I understand the whole "not penalizing team A, but, they also should not get the benefit of an additional possession. Just trying to get clarification on this.

Who gets the ball after a made basket, the team who is awarded 2 points or the team who didn't get awarded 2 points?

[Kelvin green]

Originally Posted by larandtra

OK, I have a question about this. If Team A scores on team Bs basket after a throw in, why would team A get the ball again? If Team a scores on Team As basket there is a change of possession. On any made basket, must there not be a change of possession unless superceded by a technical foul? From my perspective, Why should team A get the benefit ofball possession when they just had possession and there was a made basket? I understand the whole "not penalizing team A, but, they also should not get the benefit of an additional possession. Just trying to get clarification on this.

not ot be sarcastic but (even if rule did not say it) why would you let B score and then let B have the ball? B just scored, plain and simple forget who scored it, did I mention B just scored? Did mention B just made a baske?

[rockyroad]

Originally Posted by AllPurposeGamer

Since when do we allow coaches to decline points?

Who is this "we" you are referring to??