Quote:
Originally posted by mick
Quote:
Originally posted by JLK
quote:
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Originally posted by rockyroad
Devdog is correct...since there was no control during the shot, you would go with the AP arrow and the team entitled would get the ball at the spot closest to where the rules infraction was committed - in this case the baseline...
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But, if the ball went in, you'd award it to B -- even though there was no team control when the T was committed.
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Can you clarify why ball would go to B in this instance? Would there not still be no team control regardless if the ball went in or not?
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JLK,
Look at it this way: If the foul was not called, who would have the ball?
mick
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That's a good explanation, Mick, but it doesn't always hold true.
Play: Shot in the air, shot clock horn sounds, official blows whistle. Shot: (a) is good; (b) hits the rim and bounces off; (c) misses everything.
Ruling: (a) Count the basket, award the ball to B to run the end-line. (b) Go to the arrow. (c) Go to the arrow.
Huh? Who can explain C? Using Mick's logic (with which I agree) we'd give the ball to B becuase that's who'd have the ball had there been no inadvertant whistle.
So, to answer JLK, all I can say is "because that's the way 'they' want it."
Thu Dec 12, 2002, 02:26pm
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