Time out

[Camron Rust]

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

If you do the timeout, the disconcertion is moot. It can, however, be unsporting and disconcertion.

Not necessarily. If you have disconcertion (delayed) and have the timeout before A1 shoots, the delayed violation carries through the timeout and the first shot will resume with a delayed violation pending. A timeout doesn't erase a delayed violation.

[Adam]

Originally Posted by Camron Rust

Not necessarily. If you have disconcertion (delayed) and have the timeout before A1 shoots, the delayed violation carries through the timeout and the first shot will resume with a delayed violation pending. A timeout doesn't erase a delayed violation.

Good point, I'd forgotten about that.

[just another ref]

If you granted the timeout, there's no disconcertion, because there's no free throw.

[Jurassic Referee]

Originally Posted by just another ref

If you granted the timeout, there's no disconcertion, because there's no free throw.

Soooooooo........

Case book play 9.1.3SitC doesn't exist, same as 4.19.8SitC?

Got it.

What color is the sky in your world, BITS?

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee

Soooooooo........

Case book play 9.1.3SitC doesn't exist, same as 4.19.8SitC?

Got it.

What color is the sky in your world, BITS?

If the timeout was granted when requested, the ball was dead, so there was no violation.

[Jurassic Referee]

Originally Posted by just another ref

If the timeout was granted when requested, the ball was dead, so there was no violation.

Did you even bother to read that case play cited? The rules say that statement is wrong.

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee

Did you even bother to read that case play cited? The rules say that statement is wrong.

I'm not talking about the case play, I'm talking about the situation at hand, to which this case play does not apply. In the OP, if you consider the coach's timeout request to be disconcertion, (I don't) then when the shooter throws the ball to the official, the disconcertion is penalized. If you choose to (improperly) grant this bogus timeout request by the devious coach, then the ball is dead, so there is no violation by anybody.

[Adam]

Originally Posted by just another ref

If the timeout was granted when requested, the ball was dead, so there was no violation.

Wrong. There's nothing that prevents you from both granting the request and ruling the request itself to be disconcertion. As the case play states, the delayed violation would then carry over to the FT following the TO.