Quote:
Originally Posted by Corndog89
The OP doesn't necessarily address the intent of B1, but I agree there was no intent as described. However, what if B1 did push A2 with the clear intent to knock him into A1 to disrupt A1's shot? Would that not fit the criterion?
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There are 2 ways for a foul to be an intentional foul, and the intent -- clear or otherwise -- of the fouler is not part of either one.