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I'm not Snaqs, but where did he say that?
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It's the end result of treating it as a common foul. Players will do things that are common fouls in order to stop baskets. There are simply less expected points from 2 free throws than a layup.
If kicking is an acceptable (common) foul, it will be added to that arsenal of moves used to foul players breaking away. I'm not saying it will be done often. But it will be done regularly. It's a player safety issue. Kicking at players is excessive for basketball. |
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Does that mean that we should simply ignore NFHS rule 4-27-2 which states that severe contact may also be incidental contact? And do we also ignore NFHS rule 4-40-7 which states the exact same thing about severe contact? Whether a foul is intentional or flagrant in nature was, is and always will be a judgment call. |
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But since your comment is an absolute, can you point me to the rule or case play that backs up that statement?
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And this is NOT soccer. Quote:
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If the same amount of contact had occurred with the arm, would it have been intentional? No. Contact is excessive or not based on the amount of contact, not which limbs are involved. Quote:
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. No one said that. The player didn't "kick" the player. If they had "kicked" the player, it would probably be a flagrant foul. In this play, they kicked at the ball and missed....then made contact with a player's arm.
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Owner/Developer of RefTown.com Commissioner, Portland Basketball Officials Association Last edited by Camron Rust; Fri Dec 10, 2010 at 01:49pm. |
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Let me add this - if the contact in the original situation had been "excessive" and ripped the shooter's arm off or knocked her down, then I would not have need to post the question. As it was, the "kick" to the arm was enough to knock the shooter's right arm off the ball and cause her to lose control of the ball as she was beginning her habitual shooting motion.
So the OP is NOT a case of excessive force or anything like that. Had the defender kicked the shooter in the head, the chest, etc. - easy Int. call...so I guess my question (which has gotten several different answers on here and from friends I have discussed it with in person) is "Should the mere fact that she kicked the shooter be an Int. foul as kicking is not really making a play on the ball?" Consensus I have come up with is leaning heavily toward "No, but"... |
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Fisting ???
Same reason for the "old not striking the ball with a fist" rule.
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Gasoline, Meet Fire ...
NFHS 4-18-1: Fighting is a flagrant act and can occur when the ball is dead or live. Fighting includes, but is not limited to combative acts such as: An attempt to strike, punch or kick by using a fist, hands, arms, legs or feet regardless of whether contact is made.
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Yeah, the growing consensus seems to be: kicking an opponent is not an automatic INT/flagrant foul, but the bar is lowered significantly due to this not being a "basketball play."
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