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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Sun Jun 06, 2010, 09:04pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Snaqwells View Post
But consider this:
1. B1 dives for a loose ball near center court and doesn't get it.
2. The ball squirts towards B's basket.
3. A1 picks it up and heads back towards his basket, which takes him past B1 who has not yet stood up.
4. A1 runs towards B1 and just as B1 begins his attempt to rise, A1's foot clips B1 on the head.
5. The force of the contact knocks B1 flat to the floor.

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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Sun Jun 06, 2010, 11:48pm
rsl rsl is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
Yeah, but in this case it really is incidental, isn't it? How is the guy on the floor put at a disadvantage?
I think the mental disadvantage can be a factor. I've seen plenty of times when players use contact to get the opponent upset and throw off their game. I don't think the advantage/disadvantage has to be on the immediate play. If I don't make a call, then the player gets up and retaliates, and I call the second one- doesn't the original perpetrator get an advantage?

Quote:
Originally Posted by 26 Year Gap View Post
Adult Wreck Leagues. There is really no good reason to do these games.... And you end up with 'help me' posts on the forum.
This play actually happened back in March. I only posted it now because I was sick of the "I'm 52 years old, and in all my years..." thread. I hope it worked!
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  #3 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jun 07, 2010, 12:08am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by rsl View Post
If I don't make a call, then the player gets up and retaliates, and I call the second one- doesn't the original perpetrator get an advantage?
If we're still talking about the OP: The contact is inadvertent. This is a given.
So if it is inadvertent, and no advantage is gained, it is not a foul. Period.

Having stated all this, if the player gets up and retaliates, the content of the retaliation must be judged on its own merit as to whether a call is to be made or not. But the original play is over and should not factor into this call.
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