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Old Fri Mar 05, 2010, 10:29am
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Granting a Timeout

I was watching a boys V game last night. The coach of Team A was trying to call a timeout after a basket by Team B. The T official stopped play after team B inbounded the ball and asked the L if the timeout was called (recognized) prior to the inbound pass. The L said no, so they had Team B throw in on the end line without granting the timeout. Once they stopped play wouldn't they have to then grant the timeout?
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Old Fri Mar 05, 2010, 10:38am
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Yes, they should have.
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Old Fri Mar 05, 2010, 10:48am
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Originally Posted by Gargil View Post
I was watching a boys V game last night. The coach of Team A was trying to call a timeout after a basket by Team B (????? ). The T official stopped play after team B inbounded the ball and asked the L if the timeout was called (recognized) prior to the inbound pass. The L said no, so they had Team B throw in on the end line without granting the timeout. Once they stopped play wouldn't they have to then grant the timeout?

That makes no sense. I think you are assuming some facts not in evidence or you are incorrectly describing the events.
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Old Fri Mar 05, 2010, 10:52am
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Originally Posted by Gargil View Post
I was watching a boys V game last night. The coach of Team A was trying to call a timeout after a basket by Team B. The T official stopped play after team B inbounded the ball and asked the L if the timeout was called (recognized) prior to the inbound pass. The L said no, so they had Team B throw in on the end line without granting the timeout. Once they stopped play wouldn't they have to then grant the timeout?
You mean "request". If team "A" had the ball, they can request and should be granted a TO.

Edit: You meant team "B", in which case, once they stopped play, they should then grant team B a timeout.

Last edited by Indianaref; Fri Mar 05, 2010 at 10:56am.
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Old Fri Mar 05, 2010, 11:19am
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Team A was "requesting the timeout after their made basket and prior to the ball being at the disposal of team B. There was no possesion by eaither team, the ball was bouncing near the end line waiting for team B to begin their throw in attempt when the Coach of Team A was requesting the timeout, the T stopped play after it was inbounded (team B possesion) and communicated with the the L regarding the timeout. They did not grant the timeout and gave team B a throw in at the end line. I thought that once they stopped play the timeout should be granted.
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Old Fri Mar 05, 2010, 11:26am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Gargil View Post
Team A was "requesting the timeout after their made basket and prior to the ball being at the disposal of team B. There was no possesion by eaither team, the ball was bouncing near the end line waiting for team B to begin their throw in attempt when the Coach of Team A was requesting the timeout, the T stopped play after it was inbounded (team B possesion) and communicated with the the L regarding the timeout. They did not grant the timeout and gave team B a throw in at the end line. I thought that once they stopped play the timeout should be granted.
You are correct.
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Old Fri Mar 05, 2010, 02:35pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Gargil View Post
Team A was "requesting the timeout after their made basket and prior to the ball being at the disposal of team B. There was no possesion by eaither team, the ball was bouncing near the end line waiting for team B to begin their throw in attempt when the Coach of Team A was requesting the timeout, the T stopped play after it was inbounded (team B possesion) and communicated with the the L regarding the timeout. They did not grant the timeout and gave team B a throw in at the end line. I thought that once they stopped play the timeout should be granted.
Well, it sounds like there hasn't been a timeout requested since the ball was whistled dead. I suppose it's possible (though not necessarily right) for the refs to start to administer a throw in for Team B without asking if A still wants a timeout. But if Coach of Team A says, "Well, can I have a timeout now?" it should be granted.

Or am I wrong?
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Old Fri Mar 05, 2010, 02:44pm
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Originally Posted by shutupneff View Post
Well, it sounds like there hasn't been a timeout requested since the ball was whistled dead. I suppose it's possible (though not necessarily right) for the refs to start to administer a throw in for Team B without asking if A still wants a timeout. But if Coach of Team A says, "Well, can I have a timeout now?" it should be granted.

Or am I wrong?
Yes, you're wrong. If a coach requests timeout when he's not authorized to do so, and the official blows the whistle to grant it, it's done. Continue on to grant it at this point.
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Old Fri Mar 05, 2010, 02:50pm
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One of my favorite scenarios is when a coach requests a timeout when they're not entitled to one and the official grants it and that team was out of timeouts.
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Old Fri Mar 05, 2010, 02:50pm
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Case play 5.8.3E(a).
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Old Fri Mar 05, 2010, 03:16pm
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The Team A coach was requesting the timeout before the ball was at the disposal of Team B thrower. The Official blew the whistle after the ball was in Team B's possesion. So I think they should have ignored the request by Coach A, but since they stopped play they should have went ahead and granted the timeout.
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Old Fri Mar 05, 2010, 03:35pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Gargil View Post
The Team A coach was requesting the timeout before the ball was at the disposal of Team B thrower. The Official blew the whistle after the ball was in Team B's possesion. So I think they should have ignored the request by Coach A, but since they stopped play they should have went ahead and granted the timeout.
If he requests it before it's at the disposal and it takes me a second to verify it's him, I'm giving it to him. I've never had a problem telling the other coach, "he requested it before your guy started the throw in." They all know they'd get the same call.
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Old Fri Mar 05, 2010, 04:27pm
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Originally Posted by Snaqwells View Post
If he requests it before it's at the disposal and it takes me a second to verify it's him, I'm giving it to him. I've never had a problem telling the other coach, "he requested it before your guy started the throw in." They all know they'd get the same call.
This is the part where Nevada comes in with a nonsensical rebuttal.
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Old Fri Mar 05, 2010, 04:43pm
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Originally Posted by Snaqwells View Post
Yes, you're wrong. If a coach requests timeout when he's not authorized to do so, and the official blows the whistle to grant it, it's done. Continue on to grant it at this point.
I originally interpreted the scenario as, "T stops play to converse with partner, not to grant timeout," as ludicrous as that whistle would be. Regardless, the timeout should have been granted.
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Old Fri Mar 05, 2010, 04:47pm
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Originally Posted by shutupneff View Post
I originally interpreted the scenario as, "T stops play to converse with partner, not to grant timeout," as ludicrous as that whistle would be. Regardless, the timeout should have been granted.
Maybe, but I don't think I'd win that game of semantics with my assigner.
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