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  #46 (permalink)  
Old Fri Feb 05, 2010, 10:36am
Courageous When Prudent
 
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Location: Hampton Roads, VA
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Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
I can only imagine it applying in your #2, and no, I can't imagine that they wrote a case play specifically for that purpose. But it is equally difficult for me to imagine that a case play was written to specify that one team should be penalized if the officials improperly use preliminary foul signals, and that this is true even though the case play in question does not actually mention preliminary foul signals.
Manual not readily available, but aren't PC and Blocks supposed to get a preliminary on the spot of the foul? And wouldn't that indicate a specific foul has been called? And how are you assuming "improper" use of preliminaries if the play were to happen in a dual coverage area, but the officials just had differing opinions?
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  #47 (permalink)  
Old Fri Feb 05, 2010, 10:37am
We don't rent pigs
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee View Post
Same sh!t, different day.

Friday.
They brought it up, yesterday and today.
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  #48 (permalink)  
Old Fri Feb 05, 2010, 10:40am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BadNewsRef View Post
Manual not readily available, but aren't PC and Blocks supposed to get a preliminary on the spot of the foul? And wouldn't that indicate a specific foul has been called? And how are you assuming "improper" use of preliminaries if the play were to happen in a dual coverage area, but the officials just had differing opinions?
I don't know what is in the manual, but is it not generally agreed that on a double whistle officials should withhold the preliminary signal for this very reason?
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  #49 (permalink)  
Old Fri Feb 05, 2010, 10:49am
In Memoriam
 
Join Date: Aug 2001
Location: Hell
Posts: 20,211
Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
They brought it up, yesterday and today.
And don't think that I'm not pissed off at them for not just ignoring something as idiotic as your assertation that a plainly written rule simply doesn't exist.

Nobody that can read and has an IQ higher than a doorknob would ever buy that nonsense anyway. So...why bother arguing it with you?

But keep on keeping on, JAR. Maybe you can lure somebody else in.

WOBW.
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  #50 (permalink)  
Old Fri Feb 05, 2010, 10:52am
Courageous When Prudent
 
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Location: Hampton Roads, VA
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Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
I don't know what is in the manual, but is it not generally agreed that on a double whistle officials should withhold the preliminary signal for this very reason?
Yes, but once the preliminaries are used, the fouls have been "called".
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  #51 (permalink)  
Old Fri Feb 05, 2010, 11:04am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BadNewsRef View Post
Yes, but once the preliminaries are used, the fouls have been "called".
Is that in the manual?
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  #52 (permalink)  
Old Fri Feb 05, 2010, 11:05am
We don't rent pigs
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee View Post

WOBW.
Am I the only one who doesn't know what this means?

Is it one of them "philosophy from hell" things?
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  #53 (permalink)  
Old Fri Feb 05, 2010, 11:10am
In Memoriam
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
1) Am I the only one who doesn't know what this means?

2) Is it one of them "philosophy from hell" things?
1) Waste of band width.

2) No, it's an accurate description of this particular discussion.
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  #54 (permalink)  
Old Fri Feb 05, 2010, 11:12am
Courageous When Prudent
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BadNewsRef View Post
Yes, but once the preliminaries are used, the fouls have been "called".
Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
Is that in the manual?
I'll go along with you and say it is not. So, now back to my question, when would the case play apply?
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  #55 (permalink)  
Old Fri Feb 05, 2010, 11:13am
We don't rent pigs
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee View Post
1) Waste of band width.

2) No, it's an accurate description of this particular discussion.
So you continue to use more band width to point out what a waste of band width the discussion is.
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  #56 (permalink)  
Old Fri Feb 05, 2010, 11:15am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
So you continue to use more band width to point out what a waste of band width the discussion is.
and of course you've proven his point again by responding
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  #57 (permalink)  
Old Fri Feb 05, 2010, 11:19am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by chartrusepengui View Post
and of course you've proven his point again by responding
Thought that's what band width was for.


I actually don't really know what band width is.
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It'd be easier than arguing with you, Woodrow.


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  #58 (permalink)  
Old Fri Feb 05, 2010, 11:20am
We don't rent pigs
 
Join Date: Nov 2002
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BadNewsRef View Post
I'll go along with you and say it is not. So, now back to my question, when would the case play apply?
In my world, it wouldn't. I cannot envision a situation where it would.
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It'd be easier than arguing with you, Woodrow.


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  #59 (permalink)  
Old Fri Feb 05, 2010, 11:31am
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Location: NE Ohio
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Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
By definition, if a blocking foul happened, a charge didn't happen, and vice versa.
Which definition is that?

BLOCK: "Blocking is illegal personal contact which impedes the progress of an opponent with or without the ball."

CHARGE: "Charging is illegal personal contact caused by pushing or moving into an opponent’s torso."

Nothing in these definitions precludes the possibility of having both on one play.

You might have a point about proper enforcement, but that's not a matter of definitions.
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  #60 (permalink)  
Old Fri Feb 05, 2010, 01:11pm
We don't rent pigs
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mbyron View Post

BLOCK: "Blocking is illegal personal contact which impedes the progress of an opponent with or without the ball."

CHARGE: "Charging is illegal personal contact caused by pushing or moving into an opponent’s torso."
These two things can happen simultaneously?
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