out of bounds pass

[Camron Rust]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

Either it is proper for the clock to start in a situation or it isn't. There is no middle ground. If it wouldn't be a timing error if the clock does start and the officials would not reset the clock, then that is because it was proper for it to start according to the rule.

No, it is "acceptable" for the clock to start but it is not required. Therefore, "should" is not the correct word. May start and shall start are two different things.

In the case where the initial touch being illegal (kick), the clock shall NOT start. But in other cases, it MAY start but it is possible that the play is blown dead before it starts.

If the official blows the whistle either before indicating time should start or in absense of indicating time shoud start (seeing that the initial touch is also a violation), then the clock will not start...and that is entirely proper. It is not an error. If an official starts the clock and another blows it dead for anything other than a throwin violation/illegal touch the clock MAY legally run for a short period of time...but it not a timing error if it does not.

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by Camron Rust

No, it is "acceptable" for the clock to start but it is not required. Therefore, "should" is not the correct word. May start and shall start are two different things.

In the case where the initial touch being illegal (kick), the clock shall NOT start. But in other cases, it MAY start but it is possible that the play is blown dead before it starts.

If the official blows the whistle either before indicating time should start or in absense of indicating time shoud start (seeing that the initial touch is also a violation), then the clock will not start...and that is entirely proper. It is not an error. If an official starts the clock and another blows it dead for anything other than a throwin violation/illegal touch the clock MAY legally run for a short period of time...but it not a timing error if it does not.

Camron,
I'm going to disagree. I don't believe that your opinion can be supported by the rules.
I believe that what you contend here, "If the official blows the whistle either before indicating time should start or in absense of indicating time shoud start..." is a mistake on the part of the official and that the timer is authorized BY RULE to start the clock. It is a case of the official neglecting to signal.

[Camron Rust]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

Camron,
I'm going to disagree. I don't believe that your opinion can be supported by the rules.
I believe that what you contend here, "If the official blows the whistle either before indicating time should start or in absense of indicating time shoud start..." is a mistake on the part of the official and that the timer is authorized BY RULE to start the clock. It is a case of the official neglecting to signal.

When a player catches the ball on the OOB side of the throwin plane on a spot throwin, do you chop time in and then blow the whistle and raise your arm again? Or do you blow the whistle and keep your arm up?

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by camron rust

when a player catches the ball on the oob side of the throwin plane on a spot throwin, do you chop time in and then blow the whistle and raise your arm again? Or do you blow the whistle and keep your arm up?

+1

[ref3808]

Yup ... the whole thing. I'm really quite tired now. For our next topic, could we take up something simple like relationships between men and women, or maybe memorizing Pi to a million digits.

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by Camron Rust

When a player catches the ball on the OOB side of the throwin plane on a spot throwin, do you chop time in and then blow the whistle and raise your arm again? Or do you blow the whistle and keep your arm up?

The correct mechanic is the former, but I would guess that most people incorrectly do the latter. Of course, that doesn't make it right.

So what is your point--that most people do this wrong?

In regard to timing the situation, it is no different from A1 making a throw-in pass from behind the end line which is first touched by A2 at the division line while he has one foot touching OOB.

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

The correct mechanic is the former, but I would guess that most people incorrectly do the latter.

I am in the group that incorrectly does it. Why is it proper in this situation to chop the time in when the ball becomes dead?

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by just another ref

I am in the group that incorrectly does it. Why is it proper in this situation to chop the time in when the ball becomes dead?

Because the rule, 5-9-4, states that the clock shall be restarted when the ball is legally touched by a player on the court. That player can be either inbounds or out-of-bounds. The clock should start on that touching and then stop as soon as the official blows the whistle for the violation. Never starting it isn't proper according to the rule.

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

Because the rule, 5-9-4, states that the clock shall be restarted when the ball is legally touched by a player on the court. That player can be either inbounds or out-of-bounds. The clock should start on that touching and then stop as soon as the official blows the whistle for the violation. Never starting it isn't proper according to the rule.

Where is the definition of "on the court" other than 4-13 Court Areas, which clearly does not include out of bounds.

[chseagle]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

Because the rule, 5-9-4, states that the clock shall be restarted when the ball is legally touched by a player on the court. That player can be either inbounds or out-of-bounds. The clock should start on that touching and then stop as soon as the official blows the whistle for the violation. Never starting it isn't proper according to the rule.

I've always had the thinking that the clock only starts either when I see the ball is inbounds with player dribbling or passing, or the official says to start the clock.