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Free Throw Fake
I was shooting free throws today at the gym and came across a situation...
As I was starting my shooting motion, the ball sort of slipped out of my hands, so I stopped myself and started again. Would you call this a fake during a game? There is a situation in the casebook (9.1.2), but how does an official tell what's a fake and what isn't? |
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So what would you do? Blow the whistle and give the ball back to the shooter or call it a violation because the shot didn't hit the rim?
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Here is a Case Book Example on Faking a Shot and Another on the Free Thrower Losing the Ball.
FAKING 9.1.3 SITUATION A: A1, at the free throw line to attempt a final free throw, fakes the release of the ball. RULING: A violation by A1, Team B will be awarded a throw-in at the nearest spot. COMMENT: The faking of a free throw try is a violation. However, if A1 does not feel comfortable after starting his/her motion and stops to adjust, the players in the lane spaces are expected to hold their positions. (9-1-3b) FREE-THROWER LOSES BALL *9.1.1 SITUATION: A1, at the free-throw line to attempt a free throw: (a) muffs the pass from the official and it rolls forward; or (b) while performing his/her habitual dribbles prior to the release, accidentally allows the ball to deflect off his/her foot into the lane. RULING: In (a), the official should sound the whistle to prevent any violations and then start the free throw procedure again. No freethrow violation should be called in this situation. In (b), a free-throw violation shall be called on A1. (9-1-3a, e) In your case, was the Fake "intentional?" Or would you say the Free Thrower "lost the ball?" If they lost the ball and got it back "without violating" and no one else violated - easy no call (keep counting). If he violates to get the ball. Tweet! But, what if he gets the ball back legally, and someone else violates? Delayed violation on them? Hmmm.... As a ref, would you use "preventitve officiating" and blow it dead before a violation, get the ball back, and re-toss it to the shooter?
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There was the person who sent ten puns to friends, with the hope that at least one of the puns would make them laugh. No pun in ten did. Last edited by grunewar; Thu Oct 01, 2009 at 05:19am. |
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If someone else violates, it depends on what happened. If the shooter made a borderline fake shot that caused another player to violate, the burden is on the shooter. If the shooter recovers the ball and another player subsequently wanders out of the lane, that's on the other player. FWIW, I've never seen any of this happen, so it's all a little TWP for my taste.
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Cheers, mb |
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PS - I've never seen it either.
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There was the person who sent ten puns to friends, with the hope that at least one of the puns would make them laugh. No pun in ten did. |
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Why would you prevent the violation? During play do you catch the ball to keep it from going out of bounds? ![]()
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Cheers, mb |
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The Flow Of The Game ...
Of course I would. Not catching it would be a game interrupter.
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"For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life." (John 3:16) “I was in prison and you came to visit me.” (Matthew 25:36) |
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(We had this discussion last year when the change was introduced. No consensus was reached, iirc.) |
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Get by with a little help from my friends ...
I don't see anything that says the shooter can get the ball back, either. Is there any sort of citation or case that discusses if A1 is the FT shooter, fumbles and A2 (on the lane legally the whole time) bumps it back to A1? Legal?
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I'm imagining a case in which he loses the handle and it drops at his feet or next to him, so that he need not violate to recover the ball.
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Cheers, mb |
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