foul-travel-shot question

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

I know that we have discussed this play before. BillyMac is going to give me h#ll for that.

Nevadaref: You've got a great memory. I posted this play on February 23, 2008. It's similar, but not exactly the same as the situation in this thread:

A1 gets offensive rebound near the basket, goes to shot the ball, and is grabbed on the forearm by B1. I blow my whistle for a foul on B1. A1 doesn't complete the shooting motion, at first due to the foul, but after B1 releases the forearm of A1, A1 brings the ball back down, in kind of a double pump motion, before shooting it again. Before the ball has a chance to go in, I yell, "No shot", because I don't want the basket to count if it goes in, it doesn't, but I do award two shots for A1 being fouled in the act of shooting, that is his first shot motion, not his second shot motion. How far does continuation continue? Was this the correct call?

Here's my followup post:

I know it's tough to describe a play like this in words. Heck, I was there, and I have trouble replaying it in my mind.

1) I know that the shooter was not airborne. He was a little on the "husky" side, and didn't do much jumping during the game. However, I am interested in how the call would be different if he was airborne?

2) I didn't use the term "pump fake" because that's not what I saw, especially the kind of "pump fake" that would cause many of us to call a three second violation on the shooter despite the exception to the rule. This can best be described as a "double pump". In other words, it looked like, if I had not blown the whistle for the foul, he was going to try to shot "again" after having it blocked the first time.

Finished ...