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Old Fri Jan 30, 2009, 10:06am
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Subs

This was posted in a local chapter bulletin.

A1 fouls B1 resulting in two free throws for B1. The coach of Team A subs A6 for A1 at the 6:06 mark of the second quarter. The official waves A6 into the game. B1 shoots the first of two free throws. Head coach of Team A sends A1 back to the table to report back into the game. The officials will not allow A1 back into the game citing that no time has come off the clock, it still reads 6:06. The coach indicates that the ball became alive when B1 was handed the ball and therefore A1 should be allowed back into the game.

My question is why would the ref wave on A6 before the first shot?
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Old Fri Jan 30, 2009, 10:12am
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Originally Posted by wbrown View Post
This was posted in a local chapter bulletin.

A1 fouls B1 resulting in two free throws for B1. The coach of Team A subs A6 for A1 at the 6:06 mark of the second quarter. The official waves A6 into the game. B1 shoots the first of two free throws. Head coach of Team A sends A1 back to the table to report back into the game. The officials will not allow A1 back into the game citing that no time has come off the clock, it still reads 6:06. The coach indicates that the ball became alive when B1 was handed the ball and therefore A1 should be allowed back into the game.

My question is why would the ref wave on A6 before the first shot?
The coach is correct that the ball became live when the ball was given to B1 for the first shot. The officials are correct to deny the substitution of A1 back into the game.

R3-S3-A4: A player who has been replaced, or directed to leave the game for injury or for illegal equipment or apparel, etc., shall not re-enter before the next opportunity to substitute after the clock has been started properly following his/her replacement.

But who knows why the substitution was permitted in the first place? Brain fart maybe?
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Last edited by JugglingReferee; Fri Jan 30, 2009 at 10:14am.
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Old Fri Jan 30, 2009, 10:12am
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Three possibilities that I can think of.

1. A6 was injured.
2. There was a significant delay before the first shot (maybe (a) a timeout, (b) a blood spot, (c) A1 was starting to lose his composure and the officials allowed the sub to happen right away, or (d) a walk to the other end) and the officials brought in the sub early.

Not that I recommend (d), but I've seen it done, and I've done it without thinking a couple of times.

3. The officials screwed up and waved him in without thinking.

Also, just to be clear, the officials were correct not to allow him back in.
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Old Fri Jan 30, 2009, 10:13am
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Originally Posted by JugglingReferee View Post
Also, why did the officials allow this substitution in the first place? Substitutions are only permitted before the last free throw, or before the first free throw if it's a 1+1. Since B1 was awarded two shots, no substitution should have been permitted as described in your situation.
That was actually the OP's question.
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Old Fri Jan 30, 2009, 10:14am
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It wasn't proper procedure to allow A6 into the game before the first free throw unless there was another reason to allow a sub into the game (IE injury..). However the official was correct and not allowing A6 back into the game. A player must "sit a tick" before returning to the game. HOWEVER, a player does not have to "play a tick". Therefore, A7 could sub in for A6.

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Old Fri Jan 30, 2009, 10:14am
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cuz..

Quote:
Originally Posted by wbrown View Post
My question is why would the ref wave on A6 before the first shot?
.. A2 had blood on his jersey and had to be replaced?
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