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Old Thu Oct 30, 2008, 01:35pm
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No, he's not

Quote:
Originally Posted by jdw3018 View Post
Was B1 stationary? PC foul. B1 is entitled to his position on the floor regardless of whether he's touching OOB.

Was B1 moving? More difficult. By stepping OOB, B1 has given up his legal guarding status, but that doesn't mean A1 is entitled to barrel over him. If the contact is such that legal guarding status is required for a PC foul to be called, then it's not a PC foul.
This is the reason the Fed came out with this interp a fews year back. If an offensive player (with or without the ball) can not go out of bounds, then we can not allow a defensive player to be out of bounds. If you allow this, then you are giving an advantage to the defense. They both have to play within the confines of the playing court. The defense is not entitled to any spot on the "floor" but on the playing court, which does not include the lines.
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Old Thu Oct 30, 2008, 01:39pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by rwest View Post
This is the reason the Fed came out with this interp a fews year back. If an offensive player (with or without the ball) can not go out of bounds, then we can not allow a defensive player to be out of bounds. If you allow this, then you are giving an advantage to the defense. They both have to play within the confines of the playing court. The defense is not entitled to any spot on the "floor" but on the playing court, which does not include the lines.
Let's change it up a bit, then. A1 is getting ready to make a cut by the sideline - when he does, his heel is on the line. At the same time, B1 holds him, preventing him from making his cut.

What's your call here? I've got B1 with a holding foul.

To me, it's no different - other than we've got a common foul instead of a PC foul.

Remove the ball from the original play - A1 is cutting to the basket, and B1 is stationary on the baseline with the foot on the line. A1 contacts B1 firmly in the torso, sending B1 sprawling. What do you have?
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Old Thu Oct 30, 2008, 01:50pm
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Violation

Quote:
Originally Posted by jdw3018 View Post
Let's change it up a bit, then. A1 is getting ready to make a cut by the sideline - when he does, his heel is on the line. At the same time, B1 holds him, preventing him from making his cut.

What's your call here? I've got B1 with a holding foul.

To me, it's no different - other than we've got a common foul instead of a PC foul.

Remove the ball from the original play - A1 is cutting to the basket, and B1 is stationary on the baseline with the foot on the line. A1 contacts B1 firmly in the torso, sending B1 sprawling. What do you have?
If the violation occurred first, then you call it and ignore the foul. If the foul occurred first then call it and ignore the violation.

No offense intended guys, but I can't believe we are arguing this since there is a spot-on case play that addresses this issue exactly. Look, guys I don't like it anymore than many of you. I even argued many of the points being made here with our VP of training when this interp first came out years ago. However, I'm not given the option to enforce only the rules I like or to interp a rule in direct opposition to the Fed. I don't make the rules. I only enforce them. And the Fed absolutely wants this to be called a block. I respect your opinions, but based on the case play, I have to disagree with you. This is a block.
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