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Old Tue Sep 30, 2008, 02:42pm
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Originally Posted by CoachP View Post
Technically, I can stand in the exact corner of the playing court and shoot a three. It does not count then? It HAS to go over the corner, from the back, to fall in.........
That's at the heart of my question. The rule seems pretty black and white, with no exceptions listed. Except that "over" needs a little more defining when we start thinking about things like the shot from the corner. And, of course, if we allow this shot (which I think we should), then you have to ask "how much over, or how far over, is 'over'?".
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Old Tue Sep 30, 2008, 02:47pm
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I think you have to go back to the intent of this rule. The intent was not to disallow a shot from deep in the corner. The intent was to prevent the indefensible plays, as Camron noted.

To me, this is a clear example of when the spirit and intent should overrule what would be a violation by strict interpretation of the written rule.

Two, I've seen balls shot from the corner go in that did not go over the glass. I know it didn't because they grazed the side of the glass on the way by.
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Old Tue Sep 30, 2008, 02:57pm
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Originally Posted by Snaqwells View Post
I think you have to go back to the intent of this rule. The intent was not to disallow a shot from deep in the corner. The intent was to prevent the indefensible plays, as Camron noted.

To me, this is a clear example of when the spirit and intent should overrule what would be a violation by strict interpretation of the written rule.

Two, I've seen balls shot from the corner go in that did not go over the glass. I know it didn't because they grazed the side of the glass on the way by.
Agree about the intent. But the wording of the rule, and presumably the intent of the rule makers, don't limit its enforcement to just the Wilt Chamberlain play. Which leaves us with the need to determine where between the corner shot and the Wilt play the ball is enough "over" that it's a violation.

The rule is widely (if not accurately) known. So there's a reasonable chance that on any ball that comes close to passing over the backboard, a coach is going to ask for a call.
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Old Tue Sep 30, 2008, 03:09pm
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Originally Posted by Back In The Saddle View Post
Agree about the intent. But the wording of the rule, and presumably the intent of the rule makers, don't limit its enforcement to just the Wilt Chamberlain play. Which leaves us with the need to determine where between the corner shot and the Wilt play the ball is enough "over" that it's a violation.

The rule is widely (if not accurately) known. So there's a reasonable chance that on any ball that comes close to passing over the backboard, a coach is going to ask for a call.

On anything EXCEPT the George Mikan play, I'm giving the benefit of the doubt to the offense. So, in all likelihood, the entire ball will have to pass over the backboard to be a violation. (especially since we are at an angle to the backboard, and far enough away for depth perception to be an issue)

On the George Mikan play (not that I ever expect to see it), I might be more strict.
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Old Tue Sep 30, 2008, 03:23pm
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Originally Posted by Back In The Saddle View Post
The rule is widely (if not accurately) known. So there's a reasonable chance that on any ball that comes close to passing over the backboard, a coach is going to ask for a call.
I'm all for the coaches asking for that call. It will be a nice change of pace, instead of a steady diet of travel requests. I welcome variety
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Old Tue Sep 30, 2008, 03:24pm
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I've blown this call once, and nothing was said by the "offended" coach. Of course, I believe that was a sophomore game, and those coaches weren't particularly chippy anyway.

You're right, though; obviously the line is somewhere between the two plays. Personally, I put the line a lot closer to the Chamberlain/Mikan play than the shot in the corner. Legitimate shots can be defended normally.

To put it into practice, perhaps I lean towards thinking the entire ball has to be over the back board to qualify.
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Old Tue Sep 30, 2008, 03:33pm
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I'm happy to go with the entire ball. That makes my life easier, it's relatively easy to judge, and is probably closer to the intent of the rule than any other option.

It doesn't sound like anybody knows of any official interp on this. Not even after the UCLA game last year?
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Last edited by Back In The Saddle; Tue Sep 30, 2008 at 03:38pm.
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Old Tue Sep 30, 2008, 02:48pm
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I went and re-read the rule and then asked myself why it was in place. The best thing I can come up with is that it puts the defense at a disadvantage to steal, tip, etc. the pass when you're behind the board and pass it over the top to someone on the other side. That said, the defense has the exact same opportunity to block the shot in the corner that they have anywhere else on the floor so it shouldn't matter in that instance. Just my $0.02
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