Strange Sideline Inbounds play

[Adam]

Originally Posted by zeedonk

A1 then inbounds and off we go. As we go, A1 asks why B1 didn't get a T for reaching in, I say b/c he didn't hit anything

While you were right in not calling the T, should you have perhaps called a delay of game violation? If B1, in his flailing, reached across the plane, it should have been a delay of game. If he didn't reach across, then whether or not he touched the ball is irrelevant.

Originally Posted by zeedonk

B1 comes by and says, Hey, he hit me on the head with the ball- I say, I saw him place the ball over you but didn't see him touch you with it.

I would have asked B1 why he didn't just grab it, then.

Originally Posted by zeedonk

Question is- If A1 DID touch B1 with the ball, I'd call out of bounds violation on A1 as he was standing OOB while the ball contacted the player in bounds (right?)

No, not right. This is not a violation.

Originally Posted by zeedonk

Or should I have killed the play when I saw them too close and moved them both away? Preventive officiating or improperly stopping the play?

Why were they too close? There's no distance requirement here, so you have no right to move them away from each other. Let this play out.