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Old Fri Jun 13, 2008, 09:34am
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Rule Question: Offensive 3 Seconds

Yesterday, I was playing in a game. One of my teammates was caught under the basket with the ball. He threw a pass that hit a defenders head and bounced back to him. He caught the ball and the ref called 3 seconds.

After the game, the other ref agreed with the call saying that the offensive player never lost possession because no one else had gained it. Thus, when he got the ball back, it was a 3 seconds.This ref said it was high school and college rules.

Was the call correct?
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Old Fri Jun 13, 2008, 09:47am
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By rule, the official was correct. Team control has not ended just because the ball hit the opponent.
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Old Fri Jun 13, 2008, 09:49am
Lighten up, Francis.
 
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The offensive player did lose possession, but that's not really the issue. The reason that it was a violation is that the team never lost team control. When a player of the team in control is in the lane for three seconds and there is team control for that entire time (and the ball is in the frontcourt), it's a violation.

Even for people who say that this should only be called when there is a clear advantage, I think this would be a violation, as the player got the ball right back with an easy chance for a basket.
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Old Fri Jun 13, 2008, 10:17am
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What my esteemed colleagues are trying to say is, "Yes."
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Old Fri Jun 13, 2008, 12:24pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Snaqwells
What my esteemed colleagues are trying to say is, "Yes."
Do esteemed colleagues automatically also have esteemed members?

.....next on Gerry Springer.....
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Old Fri Jun 13, 2008, 12:31pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Scrapper1
The offensive player did lose possession, but that's not really the issue. The reason that it was a violation is that the team never lost team control. When a player of the team in control is in the lane for three seconds and there is team control for that entire time (and the ball is in the frontcourt), it's a violation.

Even for people who say that this should only be called when there is a clear advantage, I think this would be a violation, as the player got the ball right back with an easy chance for a basket.
Sooo.. just so we're clear...

Are you definitely saying this is a violation? And that you yourself would personally call it? Or maybe call it sometimes depending on whether it's a 1 on 0 fast break or it's not outside your primary...? Or some other dependencies we might not be privy to right now...phase of the moon perhaps?

Enquiring minds do want to know.

It's true.
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Old Fri Jun 13, 2008, 12:39pm
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Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Do esteemed colleagues automatically also have esteemed members?

.....next on Gerry Springer.....
Not necessarily. And, in Colorado, that will soon no longer dictate whether they use the "members" restroom or the "other" one.
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