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2) Fouling off the ball "to gain an advantage" is redundant, since if there were no advantage, it wouldn't be a foul. 3) Why does the rule need to be changed? Do you even know what the rules are regarding these fouls? 4) There already is a rule that specifically covers this play. It's called an "Away from the play foul". It's basically the same as an intentional foul in high school or college. 5) Fanboys. Yawn. |
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In the NBA, this applies only in the last 2 minutes of the game, does it not?
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I swear, Gus, you'd argue with a possum. It'd be easier than arguing with you, Woodrow. Lonesome Dove |
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Then why did San Antonio do it in the THIRD quarter? http://www.usatoday.com/sports/baske...ns-spurs_N.htm |
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