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Old Sat Mar 29, 2008, 08:07am
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Rule 9 Section 2-Throw In Provisions

HS hoops. Player A1 is inbounding the ball after a made basket. A1 has both hands on the ball and is in control of it.A1 leans forward, breaks the plane and the ball (only the ball)touches the floor inbounds. A1 regains his balance and releases the ball within 5 seconds. Is this legal?
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Old Sat Mar 29, 2008, 09:09am
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I say this is a throw-in violation for carrying the ball onto the court. I have had several other very established officials (that I respect) disagree with me.
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Old Sat Mar 29, 2008, 09:42am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Scrapper1
I say this is a throw-in violation for carrying the ball onto the court. I have had several other very established officials (that I respect) disagree with me.
How about very established officials that you don't respect who do agree with you?

Fwiw I agree with you.
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Old Sat Mar 29, 2008, 10:36am
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Would you say it was also a violation if:

A1, OOB, is bouncing the ball and bounces it over the line?

A1, OOB, fumbles the ball, it rolls over the line before A1 picks it up?
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Old Sat Mar 29, 2008, 08:22pm
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we had this play described at our mid-season meeting...no violation, believe it or not, according to the higher-ups...

Of course, that isn't what they said when I no-called one 3 seasons ago.
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Old Sat Mar 29, 2008, 08:27pm
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I have nothing. I have had several other very established officials (that I respect) disagree with me.
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Old Sat Mar 29, 2008, 08:32pm
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great, now that clears everything up (sarc)
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Old Sat Mar 29, 2008, 09:15pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
How about very established officials that you don't respect who do agree with you?

Fwiw I agree with you.

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Old Sun Mar 30, 2008, 08:28am
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[QUOTE=Back In The Saddle]Would you say it was also a violation if:

A1, OOB, is bouncing the ball and bounces it over the line?

In this situation a vioalation-ball is released for a throw-in then if A1 is out of bounds when he touches it then A1 has violated.
A1, OOB, fumbles the ball, it rolls over the line before A1 picks it up?


I would say A1 violates because A1 can not be first to touch a throw-in
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Old Sun Mar 30, 2008, 08:29am
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[QUOTE=Back In The Saddle]Would you say it was also a violation if:

A1, OOB, is bouncing the ball and bounces it over the line?

In this situation a violation-ball is released for a throw-in then if A1 is out of bounds when he touches it then A1 has violated.
A1, OOB, fumbles the ball, it rolls over the line before A1 picks it up?


I would say A1 violates because A1 can not be first to touch a throw-in
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Old Mon Mar 31, 2008, 12:24pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Scrapper1
I say this is a throw-in violation for carrying the ball onto the court. I have had several other very established officials (that I respect) disagree with me.
I have a violation too.
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Old Mon Mar 31, 2008, 12:30pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Camron Rust
I have a violation too.

How can it not be a violation? I need a higher up to say why it wouldn't be.
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Old Mon Mar 31, 2008, 01:01pm
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My thought is the ball becomes inbounds once it touches the floor. I think of it as being the same as touching a player. If A1 simply hands the ball to A2 and they are both touching the ball at the same time, this would be a violation. Does the floor somehow change this?
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Old Mon Mar 31, 2008, 02:40pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by lukealex
My thought is the ball becomes inbounds once it touches the floor. I think of it as being the same as touching a player. If A1 simply hands the ball to A2 and they are both touching the ball at the same time, this would be a violation. Does the floor somehow change this?
Violaton 100%
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Old Mon Mar 31, 2008, 02:46pm
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Allow me to play devil's advocate here

I'm trying to figure out what the violation is for. Is it for carrying the ball onto the court? How do you justify this call? The thrower's feet have not come inbounds.

Also, the ball has not been released for a throw-in. So how could it be a violation for being the first to touch it after the throw-in?

Is it an OOB violation? If so, based on what?
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