Rule 9 Section 2-Throw In Provisions
 

HS hoops. Player A1 is inbounding the ball after a made basket. A1 has both hands on the ball and is in control of it.A1 leans forward, breaks the plane and the ball (only the ball)touches the floor inbounds. A1 regains his balance and releases the ball within 5 seconds. Is this legal?

I say this is a throw-in violation for carrying the ball onto the court. I have had several other very established officials (that I respect) disagree with me.

How about very established officials that you <b>don't</b> respect who do agree with you?:confused:

Fwiw I agree with you.

Would you say it was also a violation if:

A1, OOB, is bouncing the ball and bounces it over the line?

A1, OOB, fumbles the ball, it rolls over the line before A1 picks it up?

we had this play described at our mid-season meeting...no violation, believe it or not, according to the higher-ups...

Of course, that isn't what they said when I no-called one 3 seasons ago.

I have nothing. I have had several other very established officials (that I respect) disagree with me.

great, now that clears everything up (sarc) :confused:

DITTO!!


MTD, Sr.

[QUOTE=Back In The Saddle]Would you say it was also a violation if:

A1, OOB, is bouncing the ball and bounces it over the line?

In this situation a vioalation-ball is released for a throw-in then if A1 is out of bounds when he touches it then A1 has violated.
A1, OOB, fumbles the ball, it rolls over the line before A1 picks it up?


I would say A1 violates because A1 can not be first to touch a throw-in

[QUOTE=Back In The Saddle]Would you say it was also a violation if:

A1, OOB, is bouncing the ball and bounces it over the line?

In this situation a violation-ball is released for a throw-in then if A1 is out of bounds when he touches it then A1 has violated.
A1, OOB, fumbles the ball, it rolls over the line before A1 picks it up?


I would say A1 violates because A1 can not be first to touch a throw-in

I have a violation too.

How can it not be a violation? I need a higher up to say why it wouldn't be.

My thought is the ball becomes inbounds once it touches the floor. I think of it as being the same as touching a player. If A1 simply hands the ball to A2 and they are both touching the ball at the same time, this would be a violation. Does the floor somehow change this?

Violaton 100%

Allow me to play devil's advocate here :)

I'm trying to figure out what the violation is for. Is it for carrying the ball onto the court? How do you justify this call? The thrower's feet have not come inbounds.

Also, the ball has not been released for a throw-in. So how could it be a violation for being the first to touch it after the throw-in?

Is it an OOB violation? If so, based on what?