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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Mon Mar 31, 2008, 12:30pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Camron Rust
I have a violation too.

How can it not be a violation? I need a higher up to say why it wouldn't be.
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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Mon Mar 31, 2008, 01:01pm
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My thought is the ball becomes inbounds once it touches the floor. I think of it as being the same as touching a player. If A1 simply hands the ball to A2 and they are both touching the ball at the same time, this would be a violation. Does the floor somehow change this?
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Old Mon Mar 31, 2008, 02:40pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by lukealex
My thought is the ball becomes inbounds once it touches the floor. I think of it as being the same as touching a player. If A1 simply hands the ball to A2 and they are both touching the ball at the same time, this would be a violation. Does the floor somehow change this?
Violaton 100%
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  #4 (permalink)  
Old Mon Mar 31, 2008, 02:46pm
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Allow me to play devil's advocate here

I'm trying to figure out what the violation is for. Is it for carrying the ball onto the court? How do you justify this call? The thrower's feet have not come inbounds.

Also, the ball has not been released for a throw-in. So how could it be a violation for being the first to touch it after the throw-in?

Is it an OOB violation? If so, based on what?
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  #5 (permalink)  
Old Mon Mar 31, 2008, 06:02pm
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For The Defense ...

Quote:
Originally Posted by Back In The Saddle
Allow me to play devil's advocate here
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