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Old Mon Dec 31, 2007, 05:25pm
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Do The Hockey Pockey

[QUOTE=Nevadaref]
It is indeed an OOB violation and not a throw-in violation. The importance in this distinction is the ensuing throw-in spot. On throw-in violations the next play comes from the original spot, while on OOB violations the throw-in comes from that OOB spot.

I'm still confused. I believe that the original post was a "run the endline" throw in. If B-2 had both feet on the floor, one OOB, and one IB, and is deemed to be OOB, couldn't B-1 just hand, or pass, the ball to B-2, with there being no violation of any type.
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Old Mon Dec 31, 2007, 05:45pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BillyMac
I'm still confused. I believe that the original post was a "run the endline" throw in. If B-2 had both feet on the floor, one OOB, and one IB, and is deemed to be OOB, couldn't B-1 just hand, or pass, the ball to B-2, with there being no violation of any type.
The teammate has to be "outside the boundary line". I interpret that as "entirely" outside the line.

Note that this is different wording than "out of bounds" as in 4-35.

So, I'd have this as a "legal" throw-in followed immediately by an OOB violation.

If you'd rather try to interpret this as a pass to another inbounder, then I think the intent of 9-2-5 (shall not carry the ball onto the court) applies and you'd have a throw-in violation.

Either way, the violation is on A2, and the spot of B's throw-in is at teh spot where A2 violated.

(all references from 2006-2007 book)
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