Q from a 1st year: Crafty inbounds play.

[BktBallRef]

Originally Posted by BillyMac

From BkBallRef: "Once B1 has the ball and is OOB, he's now the thrower".

From ca_rumperee's original post, I assumed, possibly incorrectly, that the second play happened immediately after the first play, that being said, after Team A had scored, Team B would be able to "run the endline", and, in the five allowed seconds, all five players could take turns at being the thrower, passing, or handing, the ball to each other, while out of bounds. If I'm reading ca_rumperee's post correctly, I have an out of bounds violation on B-2 for receiving a throwin pass while inbounds, and then touching out of bounds, or, if B-2 takes too many steps, for traveling before he, or she, steps out of bounds.

BillyMac, I sure wish you'd learn how to use the quote feature.

I didn't know I had to spell it out for you but I guess I can since you didn't understand the short version. I was addressing his original play. When B1 has the ball OOB, he is the thrower. He remains the thrower unless B2 steps OOB and is passed the ball. He cannot pass it to B2 while he is inbounds and then allow B2 to go OOB and become the thrower. That's a violation.

Now, was it really necessary to have to write all that out?

BTW, nothing you wrote makes my statement false.

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by BktBallRef

That's a violation.

Ignoring, for now, a possible travel, is it a throw in violation, or an out of bounds violation?

I believe that, as posted originally, this is a simple out of bounds violation. How can it be a throw in violation if the thrower simply passed the ball to a player who was inbounds when he received the throw in pass. If that's the case, how can the original poster's throw in violation be correct, as BktBallRef stated?

Originally Posted by BktBallRef

Both calls were correct.

[BktBallRef]

BillyMac, I couldn't care less whether it's a throw-in violation or an OOB violation.

If one foot is inbounds and one foot is OOB, it's a throw-in violation, because he's not Completely OOB when he catches the ball.

If one foot is inbounds and he steps OOB, it's an OOB violation, because he's inbounds and steps OOB.

I have no idea which happened.

The important thing is he correctly called a violation. Feel free to figure it out. Either way, A gets the ball.

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by BktBallRef

If one foot is inbounds and one foot is OOB, it's a throw-in violation, because he's not completely OOB when he catches the ball.

Absolutely correct.

Another scenerio for new officials: If this were a designated spot throwin, and B-2 got completely out of bounds before having the ball handed to him, or her, by B-1, this would also be a throwin violation.

[lmeadski]

but, following a made basket, cannot the "thrower" pass it to another player that is also out of bounds and then subsequently inbound the ball?

[jdw3018]

Originally Posted by lmeadski

but, following a made basket, cannot the "thrower" pass it to another player that is also out of bounds and then subsequently inbound the ball?

Absolutely can. But that's not the scenario discussed...

[JoeTheRef]

Originally Posted by jdw3018

Absolutely can. But that's not the scenario discussed...

Didn't the original poster clarify that B Teams inbound play happened after A's made basket? So if that's the case, if B1 has the ball for a throw-in and passes this throw-in ball to B2 who has one foot inbound and one oob, then B2 can continue oob to complete the throw-in. So in this scenario, it does matter if B2 has one foot in and one out.