foul shots or OB?

[fmkjrunc]

team A has the ball in their offensive end, team A PG passes into high post, team B player cuts in front to steal ball and is fouled, this is team A 7th team foul, is team B shooting 1 & 1 or is the ball OB, thanks for your help.

[JRutledge]

Team B shoots the bonus with the player that was fouled on the line.

Peace

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by fmkjrunc

team A has the ball in their offensive end, team A PG passes into high post, team B player cuts in front to steal ball and is fouled, this is team A 7th team foul, is team B shooting 1 & 1 or is the ball OB, thanks for your help.

Did the Team B player intercept the ball prior to the foul or was he only cutting in front of the opponent and trying to reach the ball when he was fouled?

If he caught the ball and then was fouled, he shoots the 1&1.

If he was fouled before establishing control, then it is a team control foul by Team A and the ball is awarded OOB to Team B.

[fmkjrunc]

thanks for the quick responses, when the pass was thrown, the player on team B was in front of the player on team A, team A player tried to jump over the back to get the ball, contact occured at the same time of catching of pass

[truerookie]

Originally Posted by fmkjrunc

thanks for the quick responses, when the pass was thrown, the player on team B was in front of the player on team A, team A player tried to jump over the back to get the ball, contact occured at the same time of catching of pass

Judgemet call on this one. However, if it happen simultaneously I would shoot the bonus.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by fmkjrunc

thanks for the quick responses, when the pass was thrown, the player on team B was in front of the player on team A, team A player tried to jump over the back to get the ball, contact occured at the same time of catching of pass

Can't happen "at the same time." The official must decide which occurred first, and administer accordingly.

[M&M Guy]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

Can't happen "at the same time."

I thought the tie always goes to the runner?

Anyway, if B was fouled while A was still in team control (while the pass was still in the air, for example), there are no FT's, and the ball is awarded to B for a throw-in at the spot closest to the foul. If B had intercepted the pass, team A is no longer in team control, so B will shoot the 1-and-1. But as Bob said, you do have to make the decision as to which happened first - the foul, then catch, or catch, then foul. That's why we get paid the big bucks.

[Mark Padgett]

Originally Posted by M&M Guy

That's why we get paid the big bucks.

Frankly, I'd rather have cash.

[Mark Dexter]

Originally Posted by M&M Guy

I thought the tie always goes to the runner?

Nope. Check your baseball rulebook.

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

Did the Team B player intercept the ball prior to the foul or was he only cutting in front of the opponent and trying to reach the ball when he was fouled?

If he caught the ball and then was fouled, he shoots the 1&1.

If he was fouled before establishing control, then it is a team control foul by Team A and the ball is awarded OOB to Team B.

Agree. No doubt. Correct.

[BillyMac]

From M&M Guy: "I thought the tie always goes to the runner?"

From Mark Dexter: "Nope. Check your baseball rulebook."

Mark Dexter is correct:

THE TIE RULE MYTH

There is no such thing in the world of umpiring. The runner is either out or safe. The umpire must judge out or safe. It is impossible to judge a tie. Lets look at the rules (OBR) 6.05 deals with a batter becoming a runner and 7.08 deals with a runner going to 2nd, 3rd, or Home.

6.05 A batter is out when (j) After a third strike or after he hits a fair ball, he or first base is tagged before he touches first base.
Here, as it relates to time, the rule states the runner must be tagged before he touches first base. So if they were to happen at the same time, the runner would be safe because the runner was not tagged “before”.

7.08 Any runner is out when (e) He fails to reach the next base before a fielder tags him or the base, after he has been forced to advance by reason of the batter becoming a runner. Here it states that the runner must reach the base before the ball, thus a perception of time being a tie, the runner would be out.

So in conculsion, tie goes to runner at first and tie goes to fielders at the other bases.

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by BillyMac

So in conculsion, tie goes to runner at first and tie goes to fielders at the other bases.

That's incorrect. Professional instruction is that, on any force play and any play on the batter-runner at 1B, the runner must beat the ball to the base. If he doesn't, he's out. There are no ties, and 1B is no different.

[JRutledge]

Tie goes to the umpire. A runner must beat a throw. If they do not beat a throw, they are out plain and simple.

Peace

[Adam]

Originally Posted by BillyMac

From M&M Guy: "I thought the tie always goes to the runner?"

From Mark Dexter: "Nope. Check your baseball rulebook."

Mark Dexter is correct:

I'm pretty sure M&M knew this, and he was referencing an old thread.

[M&M Guy]

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

I'm pretty sure M&M knew this, and he was referencing an old thread.

Thank you.

When it comes to baseball, for the most part I'm in BIFS: Blissfully Ignorant Fanboy Status. But I do know this - the rule about the tie going to the runner is the exactly the same as the rule about a referee preventing overtimes: it pushes some peoples' buttons.