Bounce pass to self

[Jurassic Referee]

Originally Posted by just another ref

Are there cases where it is uncertain what A1's intention is when he releases the ball? Certainly there could be, in which case one might wait a little longer to let the play unfold. But there are also case when it is quite obvious that when A1 releases the ball it is indeed a dribble, nothing else, and if he has no dribble, when this ball hits the floor it is a violation.

How come you're changing your tune now? Going back to the post of yours above that I answered (again), you stated that it was an "immediate violation". Now you're advocating letting the play unfold? How can you know for sure which is which unless you let the play unfold?

How can you explain away the language of rule 4-31, which defines a "pass"? In both the definitions of a "dribble" and a "pass", the ball is thrown or batted.

You need to make up your mind.

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee

How come you're changing your tune now? Going back to the post of yours above that I answered (again), you stated that it was an "immediate violation". Now you're advocating letting the play unfold? How can you know for sure which is which unless you let the play unfold?

How can you explain away the language of rule 4-31, which defines a "pass"? In both the definitions of a "dribble" and a "pass", the ball is thrown or batted.

You need to make up your mind.

Not changing my tune at all. I merely acknowledged the idea that a move could appear to be one thing but could dissolve into something else. If this is the case, hold the whistle. But, in my opinion, the vast majority of times that a player puts the ball on the floor to start a dribble, it is virtually unmistakable.