Back court violation?

[IREFU2]

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee

Yup. Now whatintheheck has that got to do with what we're discussing?

"Splain that to me.....

Read Scrapper1's post, maybe the light will come on.

[Jurassic Referee]

Originally Posted by IREFU2

Read Scrapper1's post, maybe the light will come on.

The light was always on. Now maybe you can explain your statement. You said that once the ball was in the air, there was no player or team control, and thus no backcourt violation. That statement is wrong. If A2 established player control on the rebound, the rules say that there is a backcourt violation.

[HawkeyeCubP]

Originally Posted by IREFU2

Read Scrapper1's post, maybe the light will come on.

I've got to say that I'm slightly confused by your post as well. (I actually said "Once WHAT was in the air?" outloud just before scrolling down to Jurassic's first post. Funny.) Do you mean once the try is released there's no player/team control, and thus no violation? If so, you're still ignoring the possibility, as others have stated, that player and therefore team control was re-established when A2 passed/batted the ball into the backcourt. Judgement, I know, but the possibility is there - it's not black and white. I believe rainmaker had this very same play (on the baseline, however, if I recall) recently, and ruled control and subsequent violation. Could go either way, in most of these, but if a player is able to palm/cup the ball with the hand and heave it, I'm inclined to think that, more often than not, there's player control there. Bob's question, as a determining factor, is a good one, as well.