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Old Sun Oct 16, 2005, 09:17am
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Saw an instance where the ball is placed in the hands of a foul shooter when a sub comes on to the floor without being beckened. A technical was called and the foul line was emptied to allow the previous foul shots to complete, including the first one, which was a 1 and 1. The question is: Did the unbeckoned players interruption also create a foul violation that would have dosallowed the first, and in this case the only fould shot because of the 1 and 1?

Bobby O
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Old Sun Oct 16, 2005, 09:45am
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Quote:
Originally posted by Bobby Oakes
Saw an instance where the ball is placed in the hands of a foul shooter when a sub comes on to the floor without being beckened. A technical was called and the foul line was emptied to allow the previous foul shots to complete, including the first one, which was a 1 and 1. The question is: Did the unbeckoned players interruption also create a foul violation that would have dosallowed the first, and in this case the only fould shot because of the 1 and 1?

I take it that the illegal substitution was made by a teammate of the FT shooter.

You answered your own question already. The penalty for an illegal substitution is a technical foul. Illegal substitution isn't a violation. There is no rules language that would allow you to cancel a merited free throw without a violation of some kind by the shooting team.

Welcome to the forum, Bobby.
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Old Sun Oct 16, 2005, 09:50am
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Cool

Welcome to the forum Bobby. I believe you will find it extremely informational and a great place to kick around game situations with all different levels of officials. JR gave you the answer. Clear the line, let the free throw shooter tale his/her shot(s) and then let whatever team is entitled shoot the free throws for the "T".
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