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Saw an instance where the ball is placed in the hands of a foul shooter when a sub comes on to the floor without being beckened. A technical was called and the foul line was emptied to allow the previous foul shots to complete, including the first one, which was a 1 and 1. The question is: Did the unbeckoned players interruption also create a foul violation that would have dosallowed the first, and in this case the only fould shot because of the 1 and 1?
Bobby O
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