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Wed Feb 21, 2001, 10:23am
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Uh oh!!! I guess I didn't phrase it correctly. In play 2, Team A scores a f/g. On the ensuing throwin by Team B, Team A violates by kicking the ball. Does Team B now lose the right to 'run the baseline' on the next throw-in? ........ I think I just answered my own question. Since the throw-in had to 'end' in order for the ball to be 'kicked', the privilege of 'running the baseline' has ended. Correct?
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