Quote:
Originally posted by parkssa
[Play 2: Team A scores a field goal. On the ensuing throwin, Team B violates by 'kicking' the ball. Does Team A still have access to 'running the baseline'? What if team B fouls prior to a completed throw-in?]
Clarification please? Since A scored, B had the ball for inbounds with access to "running the baseline", not A. If B violates by intentionally kicking the ball, A can't "still have access to "running the baseline" because they never had it in the first place.
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It is confusing, but I think he was going by the old standard that A is always has the ball.