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Old Sun Jan 16, 2005, 03:56pm
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I don't have a violation as of yet as you describe it. Never said I did.

The free throw starts "when the ball is placed at the disposal of the free thrower". What does "at the disposal of" mean? Has that been satisfied by the offical when he bounces the ball to the thrower? Does the thrower have to have control for "at the disposal of" to be satified?

9.1.1 specifically states "offical should sound the whistle to prevent any violations". So by rule, violations are possible during either sit (a) or (b), would you not agree?

No where does it say the the throwing motion had started in these 2 case plays, yet violations are still suggested as possible if the official doesn't reset the play.

If violations are possible then the free-throw must have begun by rule after the thrower had the ball bounced to him or her.

Again, I don't have a violation as you described your last post. But I will not allow the free throw to continue without resetting the play.


Respectfully.
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