Quote:
Originally posted by lrpalmer3
I thought I read somewhere that if B1 fouls A2 before A1 releases the ball on a throw-in, it's an automatic intentional foul reguardless of the severity of the contact.
Did I make that up?
p.s. Just saw a "blarge" call in the UCLA-Mich State game. Lead SOLD the block. Center calmly showed block, then conceded.
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By rule it is impossible to have a "blarge." Either the defender had a legal guarding position or he did not. A defender cannot have a legal guarding position and be guilty of a block.
MTD, Sr.
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Mark T. DeNucci, Sr.
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