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Old Wed Dec 22, 2004, 10:59am
ChuckElias ChuckElias is offline
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Quote:
Originally posted by lrpalmer3
I thought I read somewhere that if B1 fouls A2 before A1 releases the ball on a throw-in, it's an automatic intentional foul reguardless of the severity of the contact.

Did I make that up?
You may be thinking of the NBA's Away-from-the-play foul. In the last two minutes of the 4th quarter or any OT period, if any offensive player is fouled while the ball is still in the hands of the inbounder, it's an away-from-the-play foul. 2 FTs (by any player on the floor) and the ball back at the original spot.
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