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Old Wed Dec 22, 2004, 03:55pm
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Join Date: Aug 2003
Location: N.D.
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Quote:
Originally posted by hbioteach
I had a similar situation last year. Team A throwin following a time out. Prior to the ball being at the disposal of A1 for the throw-in. B1 fouls A2 (trying to guard the inbpunds play that hadn't started).

T on B1. Dead ball foul.
Can we assume that IF the ball had been placed at the disposal of the thrower-in that we would have an intentional personal? (As in casebook play 4.19.3 situation C) The key is is the ball has been placed at the disposal. Also, IF the player out of bounds was fouled (not the ball being slapped), it would be an intentional personal foul.
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