intentional foul?

[Mark T. DeNucci, Sr.]

Originally posted by lrpalmer3
I thought I read somewhere that if B1 fouls A2 before A1 releases the ball on a throw-in, it's an automatic intentional foul reguardless of the severity of the contact.

Did I make that up?

p.s. Just saw a "blarge" call in the UCLA-Mich State game. Lead SOLD the block. Center calmly showed block, then conceded.

Irapalmer3:

Oh boy are you going back into ancient history. You are talking about the mid-1970's. Give me until tomorrow morning and I will go up in the attic and research the rule. I should know it because I had an intentional foul right out of the casebook the first year it was in effect.

MTD, Sr.