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  #27 (permalink)  
Old Thu Nov 16, 2017, 11:38am
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Location: Columbus, OH
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins View Post
When A1 is straddling the line, A is in the BC. Logically, it's the same as A having both feet in the BC.

The interp has nothing to do with A's position other than being in the BC.
The way it's been described is that A1 having a foot in the FC is a big reason why it's interpreted the way it is. A1 is simultaneously in the FC and BC. If A1 was never in the FC, how can you possibly say he was the last to touch the ball while it had FC status?
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