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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Wed Dec 14, 2016, 12:40am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by JRutledge View Post
So touching an opponent was a foul? Interesting. Seems like 4-27 said clearly otherwise.

And you still are not convincing anyone but yourself. And it appears again you were the only one in the country calling touching as a foul. Which is not even the current rule.

Peace
Never said that simply touching was a foul...but it didn't take much.

Plus ca change. Plus c'est la meme chose.
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Last edited by Camron Rust; Wed Dec 14, 2016 at 12:57am.
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Old Wed Dec 14, 2016, 09:49am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Camron Rust View Post
Never said that simply touching was a foul...but it didn't take much.

Plus ca change. Plus c'est la meme chose.
Either way, they had to put in a rule to make it clear for everyone that these are specific actions are fouls. If the rules were clear previously as state, they would have kept them the same or the rules would never change in language in order to get the appropriate application of what is wanted in the game. There is also a reason we have interpretations as well. Life is too short to worry about what once was. We are in a newer era and the rules and interpretations reflect that era.

Peace
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Old Wed Dec 14, 2016, 11:39am
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The reason the automatics were written into the rulebook, is because we as a whole were not enforcing the hand checking, illegal use of hands rules already written into the rulebook. Advantage/disadvantage was being used as well as RSBQ. Each official is different and what I might think is and advantage or disadvantage, someone else might not. Therefore, the automatics came about. If you do A, B, C, or D. Its a foul.
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