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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Mon Feb 01, 2016, 09:36pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rich View Post
In HS the violation is for leaving, not touching the ball first after returning.
So if the same situation happened in high school, what would be the ruling?
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Old Mon Feb 01, 2016, 09:41pm
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Do you have the time of the play in the game?

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Charles Michael “Mick” Chambers (1947-2010)
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Old Mon Feb 01, 2016, 09:44pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by OfficialBFish View Post
So if the same situation happened in high school, what would be the ruling?
The violation would be whistled when the player steps out of bounds to go around the screen. The official wouldn't wait until he touched the ball after returning.
Quote:
Originally Posted by JRutledge View Post
Do you have the time of the play in the game?
About 2:30 remaining in the second half.
  #4 (permalink)  
Old Mon Feb 01, 2016, 10:41pm
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Here you go.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Nevadaref View Post

About 2:30 remaining in the second half.


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Old Mon Feb 01, 2016, 10:51pm
AremRed
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Why the heck did Eades go opposite? I checked my NCAA-M manual and didn't see anything about going opposite on this or any other type of violation. He didn't call a technical according to the box score.
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Old Mon Feb 01, 2016, 11:03pm
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Originally Posted by AremRed View Post
Why the heck did Eades go opposite? I checked my NCAA-M manual and didn't see anything about going opposite on this or any other type of violation. He didn't call a technical according to the box score.
I found that confusing too. It made me think that he whistled for an illegal screen, but no foul was ever reported.

The crew was: Bryan Kersey, Mike Eades, Bill Covington Jr.
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Old Mon Feb 01, 2016, 11:21pm
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He probably was going to tell the coach about the violation and he kept going when the player started asking about the play. I would not have done that, but maybe his partner took his place and he just kept going.

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  #8 (permalink)  
Old Mon Feb 01, 2016, 11:51pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by OfficialBFish View Post
Does it make any difference that he was the inbounder and never fully seemed to step in bounds after the throw in?
IMO, the thrower clearly steps from out of bounds and is right foot appears to be completely in-bounds and the left foot is in the air for a moment, then he goes out of bounds.

If he had never left the court, then this would be a Class B Technical Foul under Rule 10-4-1k. I think that is not what happened in this case.

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Old Tue Feb 02, 2016, 12:26am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by OfficialBFish View Post
Does it make any difference that he was the inbounder and never fully seemed to step in bounds after the throw in?
No, his motion off the screen took him further OOB, it was used to his advantage.

Have had a similar discussion before with others, if A2 runs OOB and then comes back in, and AFTER he is back in bounds and established, A1 throws the pass is that a violation? Rule says, " A player who has stepped out of bounds under his own volition and then becomes the first player to touch the ball after returning to the playing court has committed a violation." If the ball is still in A1's hand, then A1 is the first to touch the ball by virtue of the fact that it's still in his hand. So is this a legal play? By the letter of the rule, I think yes, but by the spirit of the rule, I'd say no.

Last edited by frezer11; Tue Feb 02, 2016 at 12:28am.
  #10 (permalink)  
Old Tue Feb 02, 2016, 12:35am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by frezer11 View Post
No, his motion off the screen took him further OOB, it was used to his advantage.

Have had a similar discussion before with others, if A2 runs OOB and then comes back in, and AFTER he is back in bounds and established, A1 throws the pass is that a violation? Rule says, " A player who has stepped out of bounds under his own volition and then becomes the first player to touch the ball after returning to the playing court has committed a violation." If the ball is still in A1's hand, then A1 is the first to touch the ball by virtue of the fact that it's still in his hand. So is this a legal play? By the letter of the rule, I think yes, but by the spirit of the rule, I'd say no.
The wording of this question isn't very clear to me, but it is a violation if the player that steps out of bounds is the next player (in sequential order) to touch the ball.

In other words, if A1 is holding the ball in bounds and A2 steps out of bounds on his own and returns to the court, someone else must touch the ball before A2. So A1 can pass to A3 and then to A2, but if the pass goes from A1 to A2 it is a violation.
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Old Tue Feb 02, 2016, 01:02am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by jpgc99 View Post
The wording of this question isn't very clear to me, but it is a violation if the player that steps out of bounds is the next player (in sequential order) to touch the ball.

In other words, if A1 is holding the ball in bounds and A2 steps out of bounds on his own and returns to the court, someone else must touch the ball before A2. So A1 can pass to A3 and then to A2, but if the pass goes from A1 to A2 it is a violation.
And I agree with your interpretation, but I think the wording of the rule creates some doubt in that if A2 returns to the court before A1 releases the pass, then technically A1 is the first to touch the ball after A2's return
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Old Tue Feb 02, 2016, 01:00am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by OfficialBFish View Post
Does it make any difference that he was the inbounder and never fully seemed to step in bounds after the throw in?
Well, if that was the case the player could have received a technical for purposely delaying his return to the playing court after being legally out
of bounds. Given the two choices on the menu, I think the player and his coach would opt for the violation.
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