Americian Legion question

[BoomerSooner]

I haven't made up my mind one way or the other on this yet, so please help me if I've missed something, but what about 5.06 (OBR 2015 format) regarding Dead Balls:

"If a fair ball goes through, or by, an infielder, no
other infielder has a chance to make a play on the
ball and the ball touches a runner immediately
behind the infielder that the ball went through, or
by, the ball is in play and the umpire shall not
declare the runner out.

If you judge the distance of 10-15 feet in front of the base to be enough to disqualify the "immediately behind" provision of this rule, there no need to discuss this rule reference any further. I guess my issue is that I don't recall the rule reference making a runner hit by an infield fly while touching his base an immediate dead ball situation (except for intentional interference). I know so many aspects of a runner being hit by a batted ball while touching his base get messed up, so I'm wondering if I missed something here.

[BoomerSooner]

My follow-up to that and where my mind was going was that if it remains a live ball, the batter is still out for the infield fly, but since the ball deflected into DBT, all runners should advance 2 bases.

[Rich Ives]

Go back and read Bob Jenkins post. The ball is dead. The exception is that the runner is not out.

The ball did not pass an infielder in the OBR baseball sense. Passing means through or within reach of the fielder. Neither happened in your play.

[BoomerSooner]

Originally Posted by Rich Ives

Go back and read Bob Jenkins post. The ball is dead. The exception is that the runner is not out.

The ball did not pass an infielder in the OBR baseball sense. Passing means through or within reach of the fielder. Neither happened in your play.

I get that the typical situation my reference applies to is a sharply hit ball (whether a grounder or in the air) that a strikes a runner behind a fielder. You don't penalize the runner for going behind the fielder to avoid interfering if he is subsequently hit with the ball because the fielder missed it.

I've also read Bob's post, which I'm now interpreting to mean that this is always a dead ball situation. From there, I'm trying to determine where I missed the rule declaring it so, or if there is an interpretation I've missed that you based your last post on that says OBR never views this within the realm of immediately passing an infielder. I've honestly never had a runner hit with an infield fly, and have been lucky enough to not need to be sharp on this area. Now that it is in front of me, I'd rather figure it out and be solid for when it does happen.

Going back to the original situation, let's say the first-baseman is standing immediately in front of the bag (maybe just a foot but certainly close enough that the runner is operating on the assumption the fielder will catch the ball and keep him from being hit). The fielder reaches up but still misses the ball, which then hits the runner while still touching first base. Would this still be an immediate dead ball situation? I use this example to ask if there is an absolute ruling on this general situation or if there is any judgement component that could lead to the ball remaining live.

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by BoomerSooner

I get that the typical situation my reference applies to is a sharply hit ball (whether a grounder or in the air) that a strikes a runner behind a fielder. You don't penalize the runner for going behind the fielder to avoid interfering if he is subsequently hit with the ball because the fielder missed it.

I've also read Bob's post, which I'm now interpreting to mean that this is always a dead ball situation. From there, I'm trying to determine where I missed the rule declaring it so, or if there is an interpretation I've missed that you based your last post on that says OBR never views this within the realm of immediately passing an infielder. I've honestly never had a runner hit with an infield fly, and have been lucky enough to not need to be sharp on this area. Now that it is in front of me, I'd rather figure it out and be solid for when it does happen.

Going back to the original situation, let's say the first-baseman is standing immediately in front of the bag (maybe just a foot but certainly close enough that the runner is operating on the assumption the fielder will catch the ball and keep him from being hit). The fielder reaches up but still misses the ball, which then hits the runner while still touching first base. Would this still be an immediate dead ball situation? I use this example to ask if there is an absolute ruling on this general situation or if there is any judgement component that could lead to the ball remaining live.

I runner is out and the ball is dead when hit by a batted ball unless it goes through or in reach of a fielder.

The infield fly rule exempts the runner being out if it is an IFF and he is on his base. If he is off his base he is out when hit by an IFF. The exemption does not exempt the dead ball part.

[Gmoore]

In this play the runner was standing on the base and the ball hit his helmet and bounced into DBT

Batter was called out and runners advanced Two bases was the ruling on the field

[bob jenkins]

It's a weird enough play that I don't really fault the umpires for getting it wrong (as long as they looked it up after the game).